JPSC Prelims GS-I Question Paper

JPSC Prelims GS-I Question Paper -

Date of Examination: 17/05/2026

1. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the regional councils at present?

(A) Vice President

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Union Home Minister

Correct Answer: (d) Under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, five Zonal Councils (Regional Councils) were established in India. The Union Home Minister acts as the common ex-officio Chairman of all these Zonal Councils.

2. Where was the 6th BIMSTEC Summit held?

(A) New Delhi (8 August, 2025)

(B) Bangkok (4 April, 2025)

(D) Jakarta (10 September, 2025)

Correct Answer: (b) Thailand hosted the official 6th BIMSTEC Summit in Bangkok on 4 April 2025. Prime Minister Narendra Modi traveled there to physically participate alongside other heads of state under the theme "Prosperous, Resilient, and Open BIMSTEC".

3. Who among the following was not awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2025?

(A) Susumu Kitagawa

(B) Omar M. Yaghi

(D) Michel H. Devoret

Correct Answer: (d) Michel H. Devoret did not receive the award. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences awarded the 2025 Nobel Prize in Chemistry jointly to Susumu Kitagawa, Richard Robson, and Omar M. Yaghi.

4. Who among the following went to space in June 2025 as the second astronaut of India?

(A) Rakesh Sharma

(B) Shubhanshu Shukla

(D) Sunita Williams

Correct Answer: (b) Indian Air Force Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla made history when he launched into space on 25 June 2025 as part of the Axiom-4 (Ax-4) commercial mission to the International Space Station (ISS). He is officially the second Indian citizen to travel to space.

5. Recently "BIRSA 101" was launched which was in the news, it is best described as:

(A) An advanced surveillance drone for patrolling border areas of North-East India.

(B) India's First Indigenous CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) based gene therapy for sickle cell disease.

(D) A block chain based platform for transparent disbursement of tribal welfare funds.

Correct Answer : (b) "BIRSA 101" is India's first domestically developed CRISPR-based gene therapy created to treat Sickle Cell Disease. It was launched by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology and named in honor of the 150th birth anniversary of tribal freedom fighter Bhagwan Birsa Munda.

6. Who of the following was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in June, 2025?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar

(B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni

(D) Rahul Dravid

Correct Answer: (B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni

7. Where was the 60th Director General of Police (D.G.P.) / Inspector General of Police (I.G.P.) Conference held?

(A) Raipur (November 2025)

(B) New Delhi (October 2024)

(D) Hyderabad (October 2024)

Correct Answer: (A) Raipur (November 2025)

8. As per the 2025 Human Development Report (HDR) released by the UNDP, which of the following statements regarding India's performance are correct?

India ranked 130th out of the 193 countries with the HDI value of 0.685.
India moved from the low to the medium Human Development category for the first time.
India ranking improved compared to the previous report.
The report emphasizes that inequality reduces India's HDI by over 30%.

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only

9. Which of the following Indian States reported highest millet production in 2025?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Karnataka

(D) Gujarat

Correct Answer: (A) Rajasthan

10. On what date did the aerial strikes against Iran begin under the current joint US-Israeli military operation?

(A) 24th February 2026

(B) 25th February 2026

(D) 27th February 2026

Correct Answer: (C) 28th February 2026

Question 11

Which country hosted the 2025 BRICS Summit?

(A) China

(B) India

(D) Brazil

Correct Answer: (D) The presidency of the BRICS forum rotates annually following the acronym B-R-I-C-S. Following Russia's chairmanship in 2024, Brazil assumed the presidency and hosted the 17th BRICS Summit in Rio de Janeiro in July 2025.

Question 12

Regional Imbalance in India is best explained by:

(A) Uniform industrial policy

(B) Equal infrastructure development

(D) Centralized fiscal federalism only

Correct Answer: (C) Regional developmental disparities across Indian states are primarily rooted in varying geographical resource endowments (such as mineral wealth, water availability, and fertile land) alongside unequal access to human capital infrastructure like education and healthcare.

Question 13

Which of the following indicators most accurately reflects income inequality in India?

(A) Consumer Price Index

(B) Fiscal Deficit Ratio

(D) Current Account Balance

Correct Answer: (C) The Gini Coefficient is the standard economic metric used worldwide to measure income or wealth distribution across a population. It ranges from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (perfect inequality).

Question 14

The persistence of poverty in India despite economic growth indicates:

(A) Growth with inequality

(B) Balanced growth pattern

(D) Declining fiscal deficit

Correct Answer: (A) When macroeconomic growth is concentrated within specific capital-intensive sectors or high-income demographics, the generated wealth does not distribute equitably, leading to persistent poverty alongside rising economic output.

Question 15

Which of the following International Organisation publishes the 'Global Hunger Index'?

(A) FAO

(B) IMF

(D) WHO

Correct Answer: (C) The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a peer-reviewed annual report jointly published by the Irish humanitarian organisation Concern Worldwide and the German organisation Welthungerhilfe.

Question 16

What were the date and day of the 'First total Lunar Eclipse' in 2026?

(A) 2nd March 2026 - Monday

(B) 4th March 2026 - Wednesday

(D) 3rd March 2026 - Tuesday

Correct Answer: (D) Astronomical schedules calculated by NASA confirm that the first of the two total lunar eclipses occurring in the year 2026 took place on March 3, 2026, which fell on a Tuesday.

Question 17

"Common but Differentiated Responsibilities" (CBDR) is associated with:

(A) WTO Agreements

(B) Paris Climate Agreement

(D) Bretton Woods System

Correct Answer: (B) CBDR is a core principle of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Paris Agreement. It states that while all countries must fight climate change, developed nations must do more because they have contributed the most to historical emissions and have more wealth to address it.

Question 18

In the Indian context, NITI Aayog monitors progress of:

(A) Five year plans

(B) Sustainable development goals

(D) Monetary policy

Correct Answer: (B) NITI Aayog is the official government body in India responsible for tracking and driving the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) using tools like the SDG India Index. India abandoned Five-Year Plans when NITI Aayog replaced the old Planning Commission in 2015.

Question 19

Carbon trading aims to:

(A) Increase total emissions

(B) Fix pollution at zero

(D) Achieve emission reduction at lowest cost

Correct Answer: (D) Carbon trading uses market forces to lower pollution. It permits companies that can easily cut emissions to sell their leftover "carbon credits" to companies that find it too expensive to upgrade immediately, reducing overall global pollution at the lowest economic cost.

Question 20

The immediate trigger for the 1991 economic reforms in India was:

(A) High agricultural growth

(B) Decline in IT exports

(D) Balance of payment crisis

Correct Answer: (D) In 1991, India's foreign currency reserves dropped so low that it only had enough money to pay for about two weeks of vital imports (like oil). This severe crisis forced the government to open up and liberalise the economy.

Question 21

The Mahalanobis model of growth emphasized:

(A) Agriculture led growth

(B) Heavy industrialization strategy

(D) Service sector expansion

Correct Answer: (B) Heavy industrialization strategy: This model shaped India's Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961). It was created by statistician P.C. Mahalanobis and focused government money on building heavy domestic industries like steel, power, and heavy machinery to make India self-reliant.

Question 22

Which of the following is not one of the pillars of sustainable development?

(A) Economic sustainability

(B) Social sustainability

(D) Political sustainability

Correct Answer: (D) Sustainable development is built on three core pillars, often called the "Triple Bottom Line": Economic, Social, and Environmental. Political sustainability is not officially classified as one of these primary pillars.

Question 23

With reference to the "Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)", consider the following statements:

I. It is a legally binding treaty for all UN member states.

II. It laid the foundation for later international human rights treaties.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) Neither I nor II

Correct Option: (B) II only

❌ Statement I is incorrect: The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the UN General Assembly as a declaration, not a treaty. It represents a statement of shared global principles and is not inherently legally binding on member states.

Statement II is correct: The UDHR served as the foundational framework for subsequent legally binding international treaties, such as the ICCPR and ICESCR.

Question 24

With reference to the "Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)", consider the following objectives:

I. Conservation of biological diversity

II. Sustainable use of biological resources

III. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources

Select the correct answer:

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(D) I, II and III

Correct Option: (D) I, II and III

Statement I is correct: The primary goal of the CBD is the conservation of biological diversity.
Statement II is correct: The second core pillar is ensuring that biological resources are used sustainably.
Statement III is correct: The third pillar mandates the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of genetic resources, which was later implemented through the Nagoya Protocol.

Question 25

Which institution provided financial assistance to India during the 1991 crisis?

(A) WTO

(B) IMF

(D) ASEAN

Correct Option: (B) IMF

❌ (A) WTO is incorrect: The World Trade Organisation manages global trade rules and was established later in 1995.
(B) IMF is correct: The International Monetary Fund (along with the World Bank) provided emergency loans to India to rescue it from a severe balance of payments crisis in 1991.
❌ (C) OPEC is incorrect: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries is an oil cartel, not a financial rescue body.
❌ (D) ASEAN is incorrect: The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional geopolitical union.

Question 26

Which of the following rights are included under the "International Bill of Human Rights"?

I. Universal Declaration of Human Rights.

II. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights.

III. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.

Select the correct answer:

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(D) I, II and III

Correct Option: (D) I, II and III

Statement I is correct: The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) forms the core declaration of the bill.
Statement II is correct: The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) is one of the primary binding treaties.
Statement III is correct: The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR) is the second binding treaty that completes the three-part International Bill of Human Rights.

Question 27

According to the "Census of India", an area is classified as an urban town if it satisfies which of the following conditions?

I. Population of at least 5,000.

II. Population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km.

III. At least 75% of male main workers engaged in non-agricultural activities.

Select the correct answer:

(A) I and II only

(B) II and III only

(D) I only

Correct Answer: (C) I, II and III

To be classified as a "Census Town" in India, a settlement must simultaneously fulfill all three criteria: a minimum population of 5,000, a density of at least 400 people per square kilometer, and a minimum of 75% of the male main workforce employed outside of agriculture.

Question 28

The "Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award", now renamed as the "Major Dhyanchand Khel Ratna Award" is given for:

(A) Lifetime contribution to sports administration.

(B) Outstanding performance by a sports person over a period of four years.

(D) Best sports journalist of the year.

Correct Answer: (B) Outstanding performance by a sports person over a period of four years.

This is India's highest sporting honour. It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to recognise spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a four-year period.

Question 29

Which of the following gases are recognised as greenhouse gases under the Kyoto Protocol?

I. Carbon dioxide

II. Methane

III. Nitrous oxide

IV. Sulphur dioxide

Select the correct answer:

(A) I, II and III only

(B) I and II only

(D) I, II, III and IV

Correct Answer: (A) I, II and III only

The Kyoto Protocol regulates six primary greenhouse gases: Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide, Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), Perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and Sulphur hexafluoride. Sulphur dioxide is an air pollutant, not a greenhouse gas under this framework.

Question 30

Which of the following Constitutional Provisions relate to urban local governance in India?

I. 174th Constitutional Amendment Act.

II. Creation of Municipalities.

III. Establishment of District Planning Committees.

Select the correct answer:

(A) I, II and III

(B) I and II only

(D) II and III only

Correct Answer: (D) II and III only

Urban local governance was constitutionally institutionalised by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, making Statement I false. Statements II (Article 243Q) and III (Article 243ZD) are correct provisions introduced under this structural framework.

Question 31

With reference to poverty estimation in India, consider the following statements:

I. Poverty line estimation in India has traditionally been linked to minimum calorie-based consumption norms.

II. The poverty line is identical for rural and urban areas because the same nutritional standard is applied uniformly.

III. Poverty estimation in India has been periodically revised by different expert groups and committees.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) I and III only

(B) I and II only

(D) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (A) I and III only

Statement I is correct: Traditionally, India's poverty lines have been anchored around a minimum nutritional requirement. For instance, the Alagh Committee (1979) established a baseline of 2,400 calories per day for rural areas and 2,100 calories per day for urban areas.
Statement II is incorrect: The poverty line is not identical across rural and urban regions. While the nutritional threshold is uniform, the actual monetary value (the Poverty Line Basket) differs because of higher living costs, diverse basket of goods, and price fluctuations in urban centers compared to rural areas.
Statement III is correct: The methodology has undergone structural changes over decades via various high-level expert bodies, most notably the Alagh Committee (1979), Lakdawala Committee (1993), Tendulkar Committee (2009), and Rangarajan Committee (2014).

Question 32

In the context of India's Urbanization and the "New Urban Agenda", what is the primary objective of the Global Housing Technology Challenge India launched under the PMAY-U?

(A) To provide direct cash subsidies to urban slum-dwellers for home repairs.

(B) To identify and mainstream innovative, sustainable, disaster-resilient construction and technologies from across the globe.

(D) To digitize the land records of all statutory towns in India using blockchain technology.

Correct Answer: (B) To identify and mainstream innovative, sustainable, disaster-resilient construction and technologies from across the globe.

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) initiated the Global Housing Technology Challenge India (GHTC-India) under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U).
Its core goal is to source, evaluate, and scale up eco-friendly, fast, cost-effective, and disaster-resilient construction techniques from around the world to build affordable housing rapidly across Indian states.

Question 33

Who serves as the chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) in India?

(A) President of India

(B) Cabinet Secretary

(D) Prime Minister of India

Correct Answer: (D) Prime Minister of India

Enacted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the NDMA is the apex statutory agency mandated to oversee natural and man-made disaster responses. By statutory decree, the Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the national authority.

Question 34

34. In the Indian Census, what is the primary distinction between a "Statutory Town" and a "Census Town"?

(A) Statutory Town must have a population of over 1,00,000, while a Census Town only needs 5,000.

(B) A Statutory Town has a higher literacy rate than a Census Town.

(C) A Statutory Town is notified by law and has local administrative body, while a Census Town is identified only by demographic criteria.

(D) A Census Town is managed directly by the State Government, while a Statutory Town is independent.

Correct Answer: (c) Statutory Towns are legally defined urban areas notified by a state statute, containing a local urban government (like Municipalities, Corporations, or Cantonment Boards). Census Towns do not have an urban local government but are identified by the Census based on three demographic criteria: a minimum population of 5,000, at least 75% of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits, and a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometre.

Question 35

35. Which Constitutional Amendment Act provided constitutional status to Urban Local Bodies in India?

(A) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act

(B) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act

(D) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

Correct Answer: (B) The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 granted constitutional status and protection to Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities). It introduced Part IXA and the 12th Schedule to the Constitution of India. Option (A) is incorrect as the 73rd Amendment granted constitutional status to rural Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Question 36

36. Which institution in India is responsible for laying downs policies, plans and guidelines for disaster management to ensure timely and effective response to disasters?

(A) National Disaster Response Force

(B) Ministry of Home Affairs

(D) National Institute of Disaster Management

Correct Answer: (C) The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body in India established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. It is explicitly mandated to lay down the policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management. The Prime Minister of India acts as its ex-officio chairperson.

Question 37

37. Which of the following disasters is most closely associated with secondary hazards triggered by primary seismic events?

(A) Cyclone

(B) Heatwave

(D) Tsunami

Correct Answer: (D) A Tsunami is a secondary hazard generated by a primary seismic event, such as a major underwater earthquake or volcanic eruption that abruptly shifts the ocean floor and displaces massive volumes of water. Cyclones, heatwaves, and droughts are atmospheric or climatological hazards, not seismic ones.

38. Betla National Park

Question: Which of the following statements with regard to Betla National Park are correct?

It is the only National Park of State.
It falls under Indo-Malayan realm.
Park is part of core area of Palamu Tiger Reserve.

Options:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 3

Correct Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 ;

Betla is the sole national park located in Jharkhand . Biogeographically, India lies within the Indo-Malayan realm, making statement 2 correct. It was also set up as the core zone of the Palamu Tiger Reserve.

39. Largest Organ of Human Body

Question: What is the largest organ of human body?

Options:

(A) Heart

(B) Skin

(D) Brain

Correct Answer: (B) The skin is the body's largest organ, covering the entire external surface. The liver holds the title for the largest internal organ.

40. Graphite Structure

Question: Graphite structure is made up of :

Options:

(A) Pentagonal arrays being placed in layers one above the other.

(B) Hexagonal arrays being placed in layers one above the other.

(D) Diagonal arrays being placed in layers one above the other.

Correct Answer: (B) Hexagonal arrays being placed in layers one above the other. Carbon atoms in graphite bond to form flat, hexagonal rings. These sheets stack parallel to one another, held weakly by van der Waals forces.

41. Proton in a Magnetic Field

Question: If a proton moves freely in the magnetic field, the following will change :

Options:

(A) Speed

(B) Mass

(D) Velocity and Momentum

Correct Answer: (D) A magnetic field applies force perpendicular to a particle's path, altering its direction but not its speed. Because direction shifts, the vector quantities—velocity and momentum—change.

42. International Climate Agreement

Question: Which international agreement aims to limit the rise in global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels?

Options:

(A) Kyoto Protocol

(B) Paris Agreement

(D) Ramsar Convention

Correct Answer: (B) Signed in 2015, the Paris Agreement legally binds international nations to target a global warming ceiling well below 2 °C (aiming for 1.5 °C).

43. Splitting of White Light

Question: The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colours is called :

Options:

(A) Reflection

(B) Refraction

(D) Diffraction

Correct Answer: (C) Dispersion describes white light separating into a spectrum of colors when passing through a prism, caused by different wavelengths bending at distinct angles.

Question 44

The different names given to different parts of a program are known as:

(A) Identifiers

(B) Literals

(D) Operators

Correct Answer: (A) Identifiers

Question 45

The term 'bandwidth' refers to:

(A) Number of users in a network

(B) Storage capacity of a computer

(D) Size of a monitor

Correct Answer: (C) Speed of data transfer in a network

Question 46

Critical stage of irrigation in wheat is:

(A) Tillering

(B) Crown Root Initiation (CRI)

(D) Grain filling

Correct Answer: (B) Crown Root Initiation (CRI)

Question 47

Pigeon-pea sterility mosaic disease is transmitted by:

(A) White fly

(B) Aphid

(D) Eriophyid mite

Correct Answer: (D) Eriophyid mite

Question 48

Ratooning is an important practice in which crops?

(A) Wheat

(B) Rice

(D) Mustard

Correct Answer: (C) Sugarcane

Question 49

Movement of phosphorus to plant roots mainly occurs through:

(A) Mass flow

(B) Diffusion

(D) Leaching

Correct Answer: (B) Diffusion

Question 50

In alkaline soils, which of the following is not present in soluble state?

(A) Phosphorus

(B) Calcium

(D) Potassium

Correct Answer: (A) Phosphorus (Note: In highly alkaline conditions, dissolved phosphorus reacts with calcium to precipitate into insoluble calcium phosphate, making it unavailable to plants).

Question 51

Which of the following is an example of social media platform?

(A) Google Chrome

(B) Microsoft Word

(D) Windows-11

Correct Answer: (C) Facebook

52. In which year was the first book on the Santali language "An Introduction to the Santali Language" published?

(A) 1851

(B) 1852

(D) 1952

Correct Answer: (B) 1852

The book “An Introduction to the Santali Language: Consisting of a Grammar, Reading Lessons, and a Vocabulary” was authored by the Christian missionary Rev. Jeremiah Phillips and published in 1852 by the Calcutta School-Book Society's Press. It stands historically as the very first printed grammatical work on the Santali language.
Why others are incorrect: ❌ Options (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect because they do not match the documented historical timeline of Rev. Phillips' publication.

53. When did the "Manbhum Flag Satyagraha" take place?

(A) 1945 (Note: Read as 1945 from the choices based on regional sub-movement timelines).

(B) 1845

(D) 1948

Correct Answer: (A) 1945

The localized flag satyagrahas in the Manbhum region (which modern-day Purulia and parts of Jharkhand belonged to) intensified during the mid-1940s. This period marked a crucial transition where regional leaders used symbolic flag hoisting to resist local administrative suppression, paving the way for post-independence language and border agitations.
Why others are incorrect: ❌ The alternative years 1845, 1940, and 1948 do not align with the peak organizational timeline of this specific regional freedom struggle banner event.

54. The demand for a separate Jharkhand State was first formally presented before the States Reorganisation Commission in 1955 by which political party?

(A) Jharkhand Mukti Morcha

(B) Jharkhand Party

(D) All Jharkhand Students Union

Correct Answer: (B) Jharkhand Party

In 1955, the Jharkhand Party, under the leadership of Jaipal Singh Munda, formally submitted a comprehensive, structured memorandum to the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC). The memorandum demanded a separate state carved out of Bihar and tribal-dominated contiguous districts.
Why others are incorrect:
❌ (A) Jharkhand Mukti Morcha (JMM) was founded much later, in late 1972.
❌ (C) Adivasi Mahasabha was the precursor organization that Jaipal Singh Munda led, but it had already structurally transitioned into the political stream of the Jharkhand Party by the time the SRC met in 1955.
❌ (D) All Jharkhand Students Union (AJSU) was formed decades later, in 1986.

55. The Sarna religion practiced by many tribal communities of Jharkhand is primarily associated with the worship of :

(A) River deities

(B) Sacred groves and nature spirits

(D) Buddhist monks*

Correct Answer: (B) Sarnaism is an indigenous, animistic faith practiced by central Indian tribal communities (such as the Santhal, Munda, and Ho). Its primary religious site is the Sacred Grove (known as Sarna Sthal or Jaher Than), where prayers are dedicated to nature spirits residing in holy trees (especially Sal trees) rather than conventional idols.

Why others are incorrect: ❌ Options (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect because Sarna religious identity is fundamentally grounded in localized cosmic nature-worship rather than river-specific pantheons, deified monarchs, or monastic Buddhist traditions.

56. Which nutrient is helpful in Nitrogen fixation in roots of pulse crops?

(A) Boron

(B) Molybdenum

(D) Zinc*

Correct Answer: (B) Molybdenum

Explanation: Molybdenum (Mo) is an essential trace micronutrient required by legumes and pulses because it serves as a critical structural component of the enzyme nitrogenase. Without molybdenum, symbiotic Rhizobium bacteria inside root nodules cannot chemically break down and fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
Why others are incorrect: ❌ Options (A) Boron, (C) Copper, and (D) Zinc play separate vital metabolic and structural roles in plant tissue growth, but none of them can replace molybdenum as the active catalytic cofactor inside the nitrogen-fixing enzyme itself.

57. Which soil condition favours de-nitrification?

(A) Well aerated soil

(B) Dry soil

(D) Neutral pH soil*

Correct Answer: (C) Water logged anaerobic soil

De-nitrification is a biological process where specialized facultative bacteria reduce nitrates back into gaseous nitrogen. This process thrives exclusively in oxygen-depleted (anaerobic) conditions, which are directly caused by waterlogging, as water completely fills the soil pore spaces and blocks oxygen diffusion.
Why others are incorrect:
❌ (A) Well aerated soil contains abundant oxygen, which completely inhibits the bacterial de-nitrification pathways.
❌ (B) Dry soil retains open air pockets, keeping conditions aerobic.
❌ (D) Neutral pH soil supports overall microbial life but will not induce de-nitrification unless oxygen-depleted anaerobic conditions are triggered first.

Question 58

Sardari movement (1887) was held between which two groups of people in Jharkhand?

(A) Asur and Mundas

(B) Munda and Oraon

(D) Tribals & Sadans

Correct Answer: (B) Munda and Oraon:

The Sardari movement (or Sardari Larai), which occurred in the late 19th century in the Chotanagpur region, was primarily spearheaded by the agrarian tribal chiefs (Sardars) belonging to the Munda and Oraon communities. They resisted forced labor (beth-begar) and illegal rent hikes imposed by local landlords (zamindars and middlemen).
❌ (A) Asur and Mundas: The Asur tribe is one of the particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) in Jharkhand and was not the primary group involved in leading the Sardari agitation.
❌ (C) Hindu and Muslims: The movement was entirely agrarian and anti-colonial in nature, deeply rooted in protecting ancestral tribal land rights rather than communal or religious divides.
❌ (D) Tribals & Sadans: Sadans are the non-tribal Indo-Aryan native groups of Jharkhand. The conflict was between the tribal cultivators and the exploiting intermediary landlords (zamindars/middlemen), not a broad structural war between all tribals and all Sadans.

Question 59

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu visited which region of Jharkhand in 16th century and left some influence of Vaishnavism?

(A) Palamu

(B) Manbhum

(D) Panch Pargana

Correct Answer (D) Panch Pargana

During the early 16th century, the prominent Bhakti saint Chaitanya Mahaprabhu traveled through the Jharikhanda forest tract while journeying from Puri to Vrindavan. He stayed in the Panch Pargana area, where he preached Krishna-bhakti among the local tribal populations, leaving a lasting footprint of Gaudiya Vaishnavism in the region.
❌ (A) Palamu: Palamu is situated in the north-western pocket of Jharkhand and was historically under the domain of the Chero dynasty; it was not his main center of Vaishnavite preaching during this route.
❌ (B) Manbhum: Manbhum (modern Purulia and parts of Dhanbad) witnessed later historical developments in terms of temple construction, but Panch Pargana is the specifically cited region for his early 16th-century tribal interaction.
❌ (C) Santal Pargana: While the Santal Pargana region covers the north-eastern part of the state, historical texts like the Chaitanya Charitamrita single out the Panch Pargana belt for his intensive regional influence.

Question 60

Who founded the 'Hul Jharkhand Party' in Jharkhand?

(A) Joel Lakra

(B) Ignes Beck

(D) Justin Richard

Correct Answer (D) Justin Richard

The Hul Jharkhand Party (originally Bihar Prant Hul Jharkhand) was founded by Justin Richard on December 28, 1968. It emerged as a splinter group following a fracture within the original Jharkhand Party, seeking to aggressively campaign for separate statehood and protect non-Christian Adivasis, primarily the Santhals.
❌ (A) Joel Lakra: Joel Lakra was a prominent leader associated with the Chota Nagpur Unnati Samaj (founded in 1915), a much earlier socio-political collective.
❌ (B) Ignes Beck: Ignes Beck played an instrumental role in the late 1930s by unifying tribal factions to form the Chota Nagpur Santhal Parganas Adivasi Sabha.
❌ (C) Theble Oraon: Theble Oraon was a pioneer who co-founded the Chota Nagpur Unnati Samaj and later the Kisan Sabha (1930) to address agrarian grievances.

Question 61

Who was the Prime Minister of India when 'Jharkhand Area Autonomous Council (JAAC)' was founded in 1995?

(A) P.V. Narsimha Rao

(B) Chandrashekhar

(D) V.P. Singh

Correct Answer (A) P.V. Narsimha Rao:

The Jharkhand Area Autonomous Council (JAAC) was set up in August 1995 following a tripartite agreement involving the Central Government, Bihar Government, and Jharkhand leaders. P.V. Narasimha Rao served as the Prime Minister of India during this period (tenure: 1991–1996).
❌ (B) Chandrashekhar: Chandrashekhar was India's Prime Minister from November 1990 to June 1991, preceding the creation of the council.
❌ (C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Atal Bihari Vajpayee's government was in power later, when the historic Bihar Reorganisation Bill was passed in the year 2000 to officially carve out the state of Jharkhand.
❌ (D) V.P. Singh: V.P. Singh was Prime Minister from 1989 to 1990; while tribal demands were picking up pace, the JAAC statutory framework did not exist then.

Question 62

What is the marriage practice in which a couple elopes and later gets social recognition from the community called?

(A) Hatha Vivah

(B) Dhuku Vivah

(D) Raji - Khushi Vivah

Correct Answer (D) Raji - Khushi Vivah

In the tribal customs of Jharkhand (frequently seen among major tribes like the Ho and Munda), Raji-Khushi Vivah refers to a marriage by mutual consent where a couple often elopes due to parental opposition or financial hurdles. Later, the community formalizes the relationship and gives it legitimate social recognition after a mutual understanding or ritualistic settlement.
❌ (A) Hatha Vivah: This is a form of marriage by intrusion, where a woman forcefully enters the house of the man she wishes to marry and refuses to leave until he accepts her.
❌ (B) Dhuku Vivah: A Dhuku marriage is essentially a traditional live-in relationship practice where couples live together without performing official, costly marriage rituals, largely due to poverty. The woman is referred to as a Dhukni.
❌ (C) Seva Vivah: This is a marriage by service, where the prospective groom lives in the bride's house and works for her family to pay off the bride price (Gonom) before marrying her.

Question 63

Which medieval dynasty ruled over the Chotanagpur region for several centuries and played an important role in shaping the early political history of Jharkhand?

(A) Pal dynasty

(B) Chero dynasty

(D) Maurya dynasty

Correct Answer (C) Nagvanshi dynasty:

The Nagvanshi dynasty ruled over the Chotanagpur region for nearly two millennia, starting from the 1st century AD with Phani Mukut Rai. They played a foundational role in defining the early, medieval, and pre-colonial political structure, administration, and cultural map of Jharkhand.
❌ (A) Pal dynasty: The Pala Empire was a major imperial power centered around the Bengal and Bihar regions, but they did not rule over Chotanagpur as an exclusive native dynastic framework.
❌ (B) Chero dynasty: The Chero dynasty primarily ruled over the Palamu region (not Chotanagpur खास) and rose to extreme prominence during the medieval period under rulers like Medini Rai.
❌ (D) Maurya dynasty: The Mauryas were an ancient pan-Indian empire (4th–2nd century BC), not a medieval regional dynasty operating specifically in the Chotanagpur belt for several centuries.

Question 64

Sir Edwin Arnold's 'The Light of Asia' is a lengthy poem written on the life of which personality?

(A) Ashoka

(B) Mahatma Buddha

(D) Kanishka

Correct Answer: (B) Sir Edwin Arnold's epic poem The Light of Asia (subtitled The Great Renunciation) describes the life, philosophy, and journey to enlightenment of Prince Gautama Buddha.

Question 65

The Kshatrap system administration was introduced by -

(A) Indo-Greeks

(B) Mauryas

(D) Shakas

Correct Answer: (D)

The Shakas (Scythians) introduced the Kshatrap (Satrapy) system of provincial administration in India. They divided their empire into provinces ruled by military governors called Kshatrapas.

Question 66

Match the List-l with List-Il and choose the correct answer using the code given below :

List-l Eras | List-II Their Beginning

---|---

A. Vikrama Era | 1. 606 AD

B. Saka Era | 2. 320 AD

C. Gupta Era | 3. 78 AD

D. Harsha Era | 4. 58 BC

(A) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(B) C-1, B-4, D-3, A-2

(D) D-4, C-3, B-1, A-2

Correct Answer: (A)

Explanation: This option correctly pairs each historical calendar era with its starting year:

Vikrama Era -> 58 BC (Founded by King Vikramaditya)
Saka Era -> 78 AD (Founded by King Kanishka)
Gupta Era -> 320 AD (Founded by Chandragupta I)
Harsha Era -> 606 AD (Founded by King Harshavardhana)

Question 67

During the Sultanate period, which Sultan started the measurement of agricultural land system 'Masahat'?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(D) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

Correct Answer: (C)

Alauddin Khilji was the first Delhi Sultan to introduce 'Masahat'. This system involved the physical measurement of agricultural land to determine uniform revenue assessment based on actual cultivation size.

Question 68

Dockyard is the most distinctive feature of which of the following Harappan sites?

(A) Chanhudaro

(B) Kalibangan

(D) Bhirrana

Correct Answer: (C)

Located in Gujarat, Lothal features a massive, engineered tidal dockyard basin connected to an old channel of the Sabarmati River. It stands out as the most prominent maritime feature of the Indus Valley Civilization.

Question 69

Who among the following lauds Indian society for not having any slaves?

(A) Megasthenes

(B) Kautilya

(D) Diodorus

Correct Answer: (A)

In his book Indica, the Greek ambassador Megasthenes noted that all Indians were free and none were held as slaves. He likely made this claim because Indian domestic servitude was milder and fundamentally different from the rigid chattel slavery practiced in Greece.

Question 70

Which of the following is a best example of Nagara style architecture?

(A) Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram

(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur

(D) Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneswar

Answer: (D)

The Nagara style is the distinct temple architecture style of Northern and Eastern India. The Lingaraj Temple in Odisha represents the pinnacle of the Kalinga sub-style of Nagara architecture, characterized by its towering curved shikhara. In contrast, the Kailasanatha and Brihadeeswara temples are classic examples of the South Indian Dravidian style.

Question 71

Which Bahmani ruler shifted the capital from Gulbarga to Bidar?

(A) Bahman Shah

(B) Ahmad I

(D) Muhammad I

Answer: (B)

Ahmad Shah I (also known as Ahmad Shah Wali) shifted the capital from Gulbarga to Bidar around 1425–1429. He chose Bidar because of its better climate, abundant water supply, and more secure, central geographic position within the Deccan plateau.

Question 72

The establishment of the Indian National Congress in 1885 aimed to:

(A) Launch armed struggle

(B) Provide a political platform for Indians

(D) Organize peasant revolts

Answer: (B)

When the Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in 1885 by A.O. Hume and early nationalist leaders, its primary goal was to create a peaceful political platform. This forum allowed educated Indians to voice grievances and seek civic reforms through constitutional methods, rather than demanding immediate independence or armed revolt.

Question 73

Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 lacked a unified national character.

Reason (R): It was confined mainly to northern and central India.

(A) Both (A) and (R) true, and (R) explains (A).

(B) Both true, but (R) does not explain (A).

(D) (A) false, (R) true.

Answer: (A)

The Revolt of 1857 was not a fully pan-Indian movement. Because it was geographically restricted to northern and central regions while large parts of western, southern, and eastern India remained quiet, it lacked a truly unified national scale. Therefore, Reason (R) directly explains Assertion (A).

Question 74

Which Mughal emperor prohibited the use of tobacco?

(A) Babur

(B) Jahangir

(D) Muhammad Shah

Answer: (B)

Tobacco was introduced to India by Portuguese merchants during the late reign of Akbar. Realising its rapid spread and highly addictive, harmful effects on public health, Akbar's son and successor, Emperor Jahangir, banned its consumption and sale through a royal decree in 1617.

Question 75

Who among the following is the author of the book 'Tabaqat-i-Akbari'?

(A) Nizamuddin Ahmad

(B) Ahmad Yadgar

(D) Khondmir

Answer: (A)

Tabaqat-i-Akbari was written by Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad, who served as the Mir Bakshi (military paymaster) under Emperor Akbar. His work is considered one of the most reliable and objective historical accounts of medieval India, spanning from the Ghaznavids up to the late 16th century.

Question 76

The Indian freedom struggle is best described as a:

(A) Non-violent uprising

(B) Purely elite movement

(D) Regional rebellion

Correct Option: (C) Gradual mass-based movement

✅ Why it is correct: The freedom struggle evolved incrementally over several decades. It transformed from an early organization led by educated elites into a massive nationwide movement that mobilized millions of peasants, workers, women, and students under the leadership of figures like Mahatma Gandhi.

❌ Why other options are incorrect: (A) is incomplete because, alongside non-violent (Ahimsa) resistance, the struggle included significant armed and revolutionary movements. (B) is incorrect because the movement eventually penetrated all strata of society. (D) is false because the struggle was pan-Indian, uniting diverse geographical regions against British rule.

Question 77

Continental Drift Theory was established by:

(A) Aldworth Daly

(B) Arthur Holmes

(D) Alfred Wegener

Correct Option: (D) Alfred Wegener

✅ Why it is correct: German meteorologist and geophysicist Alfred Wegener formally proposed the comprehensive Continental Drift Theory in 1912, arguing that all continents were once part of a single supercontinent called Pangaea.

❌ Why other options are incorrect: (A) Reginald Aldworth Daly supported the concept later but did not originate it. (B) Arthur Holmes proposed the Convection Current Theory in 1928, which provided the physical mechanism for continental movement. (C) William Morris Davis is famous for his work on the Geomorphic Cycle (cycle of landform erosion), not continental drift.

Question 78

Match the Act with its main provision:

Act

a. Regulating Act (1773)

b. Pitt's India Act (1784)

c. Charter Act (1813)

d. Charter Act (1833)

Provision

Centralization of administration at Calcutta
Dual control
End of Company trade monopoly
Supreme Court

Choose the correct answer:

(A) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4

(B) a - 2, b - 1, c - 3, d - 4

(D) a - 4, b - 2, c - 3, d - 1

Correct Option: (D) a - 4, b - 2, c - 3, d - 1

✅ Why it is correct:
a 4: The Regulating Act of 1773 established a Supreme Court at Fort William, Calcutta.
b 2: Pitt's India Act of 1784 introduced a system of dual control by setting up a Board of Control to supervise political affairs alongside the Court of Directors.
c 3: The Charter Act of 1813 ended the East India Company's commercial trade monopoly in India (except for tea and trade with China).
d 1: The Charter Act of 1833 designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India, drastically centralizing legislative authority.
❌ Why other options are incorrect: Options (A), (B), and (C) present incorrect pairings that do not match these definitive constitutional and administrative milestones.

Question 79

Match the leader with the associated event:

Leader

a. Gandhi

b. Subhas Bose

c. B.R. Ambedkar

d. Lala Lajpat Rai

Event

Simon Commission protest
INA
Constitution
Non-violence

Choose the correct answer:

(A) a - 4, b - 2, c - 3, d - 1

(B) a - 2, b - 1, c - 3, d - 4

(D) a - 3, b - 2, c - 1, d - 4

Correct Option: (A) a - 4, b - 2, c - 3, d - 1

✅ Why it is correct:
a 4: Mahatma Gandhi made Ahimsa (non-violence) and Satyagraha the core philosophies of the Indian national movement.
b 2: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose established and commanded the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) to launch an armed struggle against British colonial rule.
c 3: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and is recognized as the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.
d 1: Lala Lajpat Rai led a peaceful march in Lahore in 1928 against the all-British Simon Commission, where he was fatally injured during a police lathi charge.
❌ Why other options are incorrect: Options (B), (C), and (D) misalign these prominent national figures with their definitive historical actions.

80. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Minerals	Mines
(A) Bauxite	Bhavnagar
(B) Iron ore	Hospet
(C) Copper	Khetri
(D) Coal-field	Dalli-Rajhara

Correct Answer: (D) Coal-field – Dalli-Rajhara

Dalli-Rajhara is a well-known twin-mine complex in Chhattisgarh that produces premium iron ore (serving as captive mines for the Bhilai Steel Plant), not coal.
Other Pairs: Bhavnagar yields bauxite, Hospet is a major iron ore region in Karnataka, and the Khetri belt is famous for copper.

81. Which of the following groups of states is arranged in correct descending order of the percentage of Scheduled Castes of their total population, as per 2011 Census?

(A) Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh

(B) Punjab, West Bengal, Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh

(D) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, West Bengal and Himachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: (A) Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh

Per official Census 2011 figures, the proportional representation of Scheduled Castes to total state populations follows this sequence: Punjab (31.9%) -> Himachal Pradesh (25.2%) -> West Bengal (23.5%)-> Uttar Pradesh (20.7%).

82. Which one of the following is a right bank tributary of river Indus?

(A) Khurram

(B) Jhelum

(D) Zaskar

Correct Answer: (A) Khurram

Originating in Afghanistan, the Kurram (Khurram) River flows east to enter the Indus from its right (western) bank. Conversely, the Jhelum, Suru, and Zaskar converge with the Indus from its left (eastern/southern) bank.

83. Which one of the following is related to the Yellow Revolution?

(A) Mustard seeds

(B) Soya beans

(D) Orange

Correct Answer: (A) Mustard seeds

India launched the Yellow Revolution targeting self-sufficiency in domestic edible oil production. It specifically propelled the agricultural output of oilseed crops like mustard and sesame.

84. The process of "Temperature Inversion" is related to which of the following?

(A) Stratosphere

(B) Ozonosphere

(D) Ionosphere

Correct Answer: (C) Troposphere

Air generally cools down with altitude in the troposphere. When a dense layer of cold air gets trapped at the surface beneath an overlying layer of warm air, it creates a localized temperature inversion within this lowest atmospheric boundary.

85. The Kuroshio oceanic current is part of which of the following oceans?

(A) Indian ocean

(B) Pacific ocean

(D) Arctic ocean

Correct Answer: (B) Pacific ocean

The Kuroshio Current is a strong, warm western boundary current flowing northward in the North Pacific Ocean. It acts as the Pacific counterpart to the Atlantic Ocean's Gulf Stream.

86. According to the 2011 Census, which of the following Union Territories has the highest sex-ratio?

(A) Puducherry

(B) Lakshadweep

(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Correct Answer: (A) Puducherry

According to the final population data of the 2011 Census, Puducherry recorded the highest sex ratio among all the Union Territories of India with 1,037 females per 1,000 males. For comparison, Lakshadweep recorded 947, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands recorded 876, and Chandigarh recorded 818.

87. Max Weber identified three types of legitimate authority, which one of the following is not correct?

(A) Traditional Authority

(B) Charismatic Authority

(D) Coercive Authority

Correct Answer: (D) Coercive Authority

Renowned German sociologist Max Weber categorized legitimate authority into exactly three distinct ideal types: Traditional Authority (rooted in long-standing customs and beliefs), Charismatic Authority (based on extraordinary personal traits or heroism of an individual), and Legal-Rational Authority (grounded in established official laws and bureaucracy). Coercive Authority relies fundamentally on force, fear, or physical threats rather than legitimate consensus, which is why it does not belong to Weber's triad.

88. The 'Doctrine of Eclipse' in the Indian Constitution applies to which of the following laws?

(A) Only laws prior to the Constitution

(B) Only post-Constitutional laws that relate to citizens

(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A) Only laws prior to the Constitution

As laid down by the Supreme Court of India in landmark rulings like Bhikhaji Narain Dhakras v. State of Madhya Pradesh and Deep Chand v. State of Uttar Pradesh, the Doctrine of Eclipse applies exclusively to pre-Constitutional laws governed under Article 13(1). It states that an existing pre-1950 law violating Fundamental Rights does not become completely dead or void ab initio; it merely becomes overshadowed (eclipsed) and dormant. If a later Constitutional amendment removes the conflict, the law automatically revives. Conversely, post-Constitutional laws violating Fundamental Rights are treated as dead from inception (void ab initio) under Article 13(2).

89. The industry which is benefitted by the Kemmangundi mines near Bhadrawati, is :

(A) Salem Iron and Steel

(B) Visveswaraya Iron and Steel

(D) Rourkela Iron and Steel

Correct Answer: (B) Visveswaraya Iron and Steel

Explanation: The Visveswaraya Iron and Steel Plant (VISL) is located at Bhadravati in the Shimoga district of Karnataka. This public-sector plant was specifically situated there to directly source high-grade hematite iron ore from the nearby Kemmangundi mines located in the Baba Budan Giri hills.

90. Which year is called the great demographic divide in India?

(A) 1911

(B) 1921

(D) 1981

Correct Answer: (B) 1921

Explanation: The year 1921 is universally termed the year of the "Great Demographic Divide" in Indian history. Before 1921, India's population growth was highly erratic and unstable, frequently checked by severe droughts, famines, and deadly epidemics (like the 1918 influenza pandemic). In fact, the decade between 1911 and 1921 is the only census period in India's history where the population actually declined (a negative growth rate of -0.31%). After 1921, improvements in health, sanitation, and food security led to an uninterrupted, steady rise in population.

Question 91

Question: Which provision of the fundamental rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?

(A) Article 17

(B) Article 19

(D) Article 24

Correct Answer: Article 24 of the Constitution of India prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine, or other hazardous employment.

Question 92

Question: Which Article of the Indian Constitution has the provision that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People?

(A) Article 75(1)

(B) Article 75(2)

(D) Article 75(6)

Correct Answer: Article 75(3) clearly specifies that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People), which forms the bedrock of India's parliamentary democracy.

Question 93

Question: What is the age qualification to be chosen as a member of a Panchayat?

(A) 18 years

(B) 21 years

(D) 35 years

Correct Answer: Under Article 243F of the Constitution, the minimum age required to contest elections for a Panchayat is 21 years (whereas the minimum voting age is 18 years).

Question 94

Question: Panchayati Raj is a system of –

(A) Local government

(B) Local administration

(D) Rural local self-government

Correct Answer: Established by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the Panchayati Raj system is a framework specifically created for rural local self-government in India.

Question 95

Question: Which of the following is the most important step in the quest for good governance?

(A) Right to Education

(B) Right to Privacy

(D) Right to Work

Correct Answer: The Right to Information (RTI) is considered vital for good governance because it ensures transparency, fights corruption, and holds public authorities accountable to citizens.

Question 96

Question: Which of the following is not a fundamental duty enshrined in Article-51A of the Indian Constitution?

(A) To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and National Anthem.

(B) To protect and improve the Natural environment.

(D) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Correct Answer: While voting and paying taxes are important civic obligations, they are not listed among the 11 Fundamental Duties under Article 51A.

Question 97

Who is the winner of the BBC Indian Sports Woman of the year 2025 award?

(A) P.V. Sandhu

(B) Mithali Raj

(D) Smriti Mandhana

Correct Answer: (D) Smriti Mandhana

Indian cricket vice-captain Smriti Mandhana won the BBC Indian Sportswoman of the Year 2025 award following an exceptional year of performance at both national and international levels.

Question 98

Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) A 10 year defence framework agreement was signed between India and the United States.

(B) This agreement was signed on 21 October, 2025.

(D) This agreement was reached during the ASEAN Defence Ministers' meeting held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.

Correct Answer: (B) This agreement was signed on 21 October, 2025.

This statement is not correct. The landmark 10-year major defence partnership framework agreement between India and the United States was signed on 31 October, 2025, during the ASEAN Defence Ministers' Meeting-Plus (ADMM-Plus) in Kuala Lumpur.

Question 99

Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights in India is/are not correct?

Fundamental Rights are absolute and not subject to any reasonable restrictions.
Article 17 (Abolition of untouchability) is available against both the state and private individuals.
Rights mentioned in Article-20 and 21 can be suspended during a National Emergency.
The Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 32.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are qualified, meaning they are not absolute and the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Following the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, the rights guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency.
Since Statements 2 and 4 are legally accurate, only 1 and 3 are the incorrect statements requested by the prompt.

Question 100

The Municipalities are mentioned in the Part 9-A of the Constitution. How many total Articles related to Municipalities are contained in this part?

(A) 16

(B) 19

(17) 18

(D) 17

Correct Answer: (C) 18

Part IX-A was added to the Constitution by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992. It consists of exactly 18 Articles, spanning from Article 243P to Article 243ZG.

Writiy IAS

JPSC Prelims GS-I Question Paper

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