UPSC CSE 2025 Prelims
1. Consider the following statements:
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. Article 94(b) of the Constitution states that the Speaker continues in office after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha until the first meeting of the new House. This ensures the office is never vacant.
Statement II is incorrect. There is no provision in the Constitution that requires the Speaker to resign from their political party. While impartiality is a convention, resigning from the party is not a constitutional mandate.
Statement III is correct. Article 94(c) outlines this exact procedure for the removal of the Speaker, requiring a 14-day notice and a resolution passed by an "effective majority" (majority of all the then Members).
2. Which reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer: (c) I and III only
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. The President's ordinance-making power (Article 123) is co-extensive with the legislative power of Parliament. Since Parliament can amend a Central Act, an ordinance can also do so.
Statement II is incorrect. An ordinance is considered "law" under Article 13 and is subject to the same limitations as an Act of Parliament. It cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights.
Statement III is correct. Parliament has the power to legislate retrospectively (from a back date), and since the ordinance power is co-extensive, an ordinance can also be given retrospective effect (except for criminal laws).
3. Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I and IV
(d) None of the above statements is correct
Correct Answer: (a) III only
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. The Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to all "public servants" of the Union, regardless of whether they are posted in India or outside India.
Statement II is incorrect. While the first part (not being an MP/MLA) is correct, the Chairperson can be a former CJI, a former Supreme Court Judge, or an eminent person meeting specific criteria. It is not restricted only to a CJI.
Statement III is correct. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, (Section 3(4)(c)) explicitly states that the Chairperson and Members must be at least forty-five years of age.
Statement IV is incorrect. The Prime Minister is within the Lokpal's jurisdiction, although with specific exceptions for matters related to international relations, security, public order, etc.
4. With reference to India, consider the following:
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Correct Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
I. The Inter-State Council: This is a constitutional body established under Article 263.
II. The National Security Council (NSC): This is an executive body, not a constitutional one. It was established by a government resolution in 1998.
III. Zonal Councils: These are statutory bodies created by an Act of Parliament (the States Reorganisation Act, 1956), not by the Constitution itself.
5. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Correct Answer: (d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. Article 361(1) grants the Governor personal immunity from legal action in any court for the exercise of their official powers and duties.
Statement II is correct. Article 361(2) provides that no criminal proceedings can be initiated or continued against a Governor during their term of office.
Statement III is correct. Article 194(2) gives Members of a State Legislature immunity from court proceedings for anything said or any vote given by them in the legislature.
6. Consider the following statements:
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection) is decided by the Speaker of the House, not the President. The President decides on other disqualifications (like holding an office of profit) under Article 103.
Statement II is incorrect. The term "political party" is explicitly mentioned multiple times in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which deals with anti-defection.
7. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Correct Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation:
Statement I is not correct. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, (Section 15) clearly empowers State Governments to make rules for concessions related to minor minerals.
Statement II is correct. Section 3(e) of the same Act defines "minor minerals" and gives the Central Government the power to notify any other mineral as a "minor mineral".
8. Consider the following pairs:
| Provision in the Constitution of India | Stated under |
|---|---|
| 1. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in public services of the State | Directive Principles of State Policy |
| 2. Valuing and preserving the rich heritage of our composite culture | Fundamental Duties |
| 3. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories | Fundamental Rights |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Explanation:
Pair I is correctly matched. Article 50 (a Directive Principle) mandates the "Separation of judiciary from the executive".
Pair II is correctly matched. Article 51A(f) (a Fundamental Duty) is to "value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture".
Pair III is correctly matched. Article 24 (a Fundamental Right) prohibits the "employment of children in factories, etc." below the age of fourteen years.
9. With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
| Organization | Some of its Functions | It Works Under |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Directorate of Enforcement | Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 | Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs |
| 2. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence | Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
| 3. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management | Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders | Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Row 1 is incorrect. The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Row 2 is correctly matched. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) enforces the Customs Act and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
Row 3 is correctly matched. The Directorate General of Systems and Data Management provides data analytics support for tax officers and works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), which is within the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
10. Consider the following statements:
I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Statement I is not correct. Article 243B(2) exempts States with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs from having Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Statement II is not correct. Article 243F(1)(a) specifies the minimum age to be a member is twenty-one years, not thirty.
Statement III is not correct. Article 243-I states that the Governor (not the Chief Minister) constitutes the State Finance Commission.
Since all three statements are incorrect, the correct option is (d).
11. Consider the following statements:
I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. Article 163(1) explicitly states that the Governor can act in their "discretion" in certain matters as required by the Constitution (e.g., reserving a bill for the President under Article 200).
Statement II is incorrect. A state bill can only be reserved for the President's consideration by the Governor (under Article 200). The President cannot "of his/her own" take up a state bill.
12. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III
Explanation:
Ratification by at least half of the States is required for amendments affecting the federal structure (Article 368(2)).
I. List I–Union List: Requires ratification. Any change to the distribution of legislative powers in the Seventh Schedule (Union, State, or Concurrent Lists) needs state ratification.
II. Extent of the executive power of a State: Requires ratification. Amending Article 162 (Executive power of State) or Article 73 (Executive power of Union) affects the federal balance and needs state ratification.
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office: Does not require ratification. These provisions (like Article 158) can be amended by Parliament with a special majority alone.
13. Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule,
I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. The executive power of the State does extend to Scheduled Areas. The Governor has special powers to modify the application of laws, but the State Government does not "lose" its power.
Statement II is incorrect. The Union Government's executive power extends to giving directions to the State on the administration of Scheduled Areas (Para 4). It does not "take over the total administration."
14. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. The Supreme Court (in Epuru Sudhakar, 2006) has held that the President's pardoning power (Article 72) is subject to limited judicial review on grounds such as mala fides, arbitrariness, or non-application of mind.
Statement II is incorrect. This is not a discretionary power. The President must exercise the pardoning power on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Article 74).
15. Consider the following pairs:
| State | Description |
|---|---|
| 1. Arunachal Pradesh | The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks |
| 2. Nagaland | The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act |
| 3. Tripura | Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None
Explanation:
Pair I is correctly matched. The capital, Itanagar, is named after the Ita Fort. The state has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling.
Pair II is correctly matched. Nagaland was formed by the State of Nagaland Act, 1962. Concurrently, the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, was passed to insert Article 371A, which provides for its special status. Thus, its existence as a state with special provisions is based on a Constitutional Amendment.
Pair III is correctly matched. Tripura was a princely state, became a Part C State after merging with India, was converted into a Union Territory in 1956 (as part of the reorganization), and finally attained full statehood in 1972